JW’s advice for themselves…
They come to
your door and say:
speak the truth in Love...
"How would you feel if proof is given that what you believe is wrong? For
example, say that you were in a car, traveling for the first time to a certain
place. You have a road map, but you have not taken the time to check it
carefully. Someone has told you the road to take. You trust him, sincerely
believing that the way he has directed you is correct. But suppose it is not?
What if someone points out the error? What if he, by referring to your own map,
shows that you are on the wrong road? Would pride or stubbornness prevent you
from admitting that you are on the wrong road? Well, then, if you learn from an
examination of your Bible that you are traveling a wrong religious road, be
willing to change. Avoid the broad road to destruction; get on the narrow road
Live Forever In Paradise On Earth, pages 32-33
I certainly hope they are willing to
listen to their own advice, because here below are
questions that Jehovah's Witnesses do not like to be asked, that need to be
answered because they know the answer proves their doctrine wrong!
If the organization did not actually prophesy the end
in 1925 and 1975, then how come so many Witnesses left the faith immediately
"They lost roughly three-quarters of the
movement between 1925 and 1928, then suffered huge losses after 1975, when the
end didn't come as they had implied over and over again," said Jim Penton,
an ex-Witness who writes entries on Jehovah's Witnesses for the Encyclopedia
If the Watchtower organization rejects others calling
them "inspired" yet the Watchtower organization does call themselves
"God's Spirit-directed Prophet" what is the difference? Is there such a thing
as an "uninspired prophet"?
Has the Society ever taught anything scripturally
Might the Society be teaching anything scripturally
Since the Organization has received "new light"
regarding the 1914 generation, and completely changed their view on this, does
this mean that all the former Jehovah's witnesses who were disfellowshipped
years ago for the same view the organization is now teaching will
automatically be accepted into fellowship again? Were these ex-JW's in fact
disfellowshipped for truth and knew things that the governing body did not?
Can Jehovah's Witnesses hold and discuss openly with
other Jehovah's Witnesses opinions that differ from orthodox Watch Tower
Can individuals read & understand the Bible alone, or
do they need an organization and it's publications to do so?
How do you prove from the Bible that 1935 was the year
for the selection to heaven stopped due to being filled?
Were ANY of the publications that stated 1935 as the
Was the Writer of those articles INSPIRED?
WAS J.F. Rutherford INSPIRED WHEN he gave that talk
in DC stating that 1935 was the date?
Ask for "Inspired Word of God" Bible text that says
that in 1935 the door was shut. Don't settle for anything less than the real
"Inspired Word of God," not some knock off brand called the Watchtower
What is the difference between a Catholic appealing to
"what the organization tells him" about December 25 being the date of
Jesus’ birthday and a JW appealing to "what the organization tells him"
about the date 1935? Is it not hypocritical when you chide the "poor
deluded Catholic" that his faith cannot find a Bible passage to support
it, when the same goes for you and 1935?
How do you know that there were any vacancies, if any,
in the 144,000 class if Jesus offered this to first century Christians? How
can the organization know the exact number of vacancies today without any
records from the first century?
Why are you called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" and
not "Christians"? Since Jehovah's Witnesses appeal to Isaiah 43:12; 44:8 for scriptural support that
they should be called, "Jehovah's Witnesses" then what was the "new
name" prophesied in Isaiah 62:2?
Can't be "Jehovah's Witnesses", for God already used it 20 chapters
earlier. Could the new name be "Christian" after our savior "Christ"?
Why would the name God gave to His people not be
"Christians" since Acts 11:26
says, "The disciples were first called Christians in Antioch"? Why is
the name "Jehovah's Witness" found nowhere in the New Testament, if
that is God's divine name for His people under the new covenant? Why would God
wait almost 2000 years to suddenly start using the name "Jehovah's Witness".
Does this mean that first century Christians were not known as "Jehovah's
If the name Jehovah is so important, then why is it
never used in the entire Greek New Testament? If men edited out the name of
God, "YHWH" when they copied the New Testament, as only the Watchtower
organization claims, then how can we have any confidence in any of the New
Testament? Should we discard the New Testament or the Watchtower organization
If the name "Jehovah" is so important, then why
does Acts 4:12 say, "Neither is there salvation in any other: for there is none
other name [verse 10] under heaven given among men, whereby we must be saved"?
Would this not have been the logical place for God to have used the name "YHWH"?
What is the correct spelling of God's proper name
"Yahweh" or "Jehovah"? If Jehovah's Witnesses maintain that
"Yahweh" is more proper, why do they misspell it "Jehovah"? If the
name of God is so important, then should you not only pronounce it correctly,
but spell it correctly too? Is not spelling more important than pronunciation?
Since the Jehovah's Witness organization currently
rejects most of the teachings of its founder Charles Taze Russell (who was
president of the organization from 1879-1916), and since they also reject
"Judge" Joseph Franklin Rutherford, who succeeded Russell as president from
1916 - 1942, how can we be sure that in 25 more years, Jehovah's Witnesses
won't also reject the current president, Milton G. Henschel (1992 - present),
as they did Russell and Rutherford?
What kind of confidence can anyone have in an
organization that rejected its founder and first two presidents for the first
63 years of its existence? This represents about 53% of the time they have
Since the Watchtower organization claims "apostolic
succession" who was it that "passed the torch of God's Spirit" to
C.T. Russell when he founded the organization? What was the name of this
In the NWT, every time the Greek word "proskuneo"
is used in reference to God, it is translated as "worship" (Revelation
5:14, 7:11, 11:16, 19:4, John 4:20, etc.). Every time "proskuneo" is
used in reference to Jesus, it is translated as "obeisance" (Matthew
14:33, 28:9, 28:17, Luke 24:52, Hebrews 1:6, etc.), even though it is the same
word in the Greek. Especially compare the Greek word "prosekunhsan"
used with reference to God in Revelation 5:14, 7:11, 11:16, and 19:4 and used
with reference to Christ in Matthew 14:33, 28:9, and 28:17. What is the reason
for this inconsistency? If the NWT was consistent in translating "proskuneo"
as "worship", how would the verses above referring to Christ read? (see
The NWT translates the Greek word "kyrios" as
"Jehovah" more than 25 times in the New Testament (Matthew 3:3, Luke 2:9,
John 1:23, Acts 21:14, Romans 12:19, Colossians 1:10, 1Thessalonians 5:2,
1Peter 1:25, Revelation 4:8, etc.). Why is the word "Jehovah"
translated when it does not appear in the Greek text? Why is the NWT not
consistent in translating kyrios (kurion) as "Jehovah" in Romans 10:9,
1Corinthians 12:3, Philippians 2:11, 2Thessalonians 2:1, and Revelation 22:21?
(see Greek-English Interlinear)
To what was Jesus referring to by the term "this
temple" in John 2:18-19?
See John 2:21.
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force,
why does he directly speak and refer to himself as "I" and "me"
in Acts 13:2?
The NWT translates the Greek words "ego eimi" as
"I am" every time it appears (John 6:34, 6:41, 8:24, 13:19, 15:5,
etc.), except in John 8:58 where it is translated as "I have been".
What is the reason for the inconsistency in this translation? If "ego eimi"
was translated in John 8:58 the same way it is translated in every other verse
in which it appears, how would John 8:58 read?
In Revelation 22:12-13, Jesus Christ, the one
who is "coming quickly", says of himself, "I am Alpha and Omega, the beginning and the
end, the first and the last.". In Revelation 1:17-18, Jesus says, "I am he that liveth,
and was dead; and, behold, I am alive for evermore", refers
to himself as the first and the last. Revelation 21:6, in speaking of
God, says, "...I am the Alpha and the Omega, the beginning and the end ...".
God is also referred to as the "first" and the "last" in Isaiah 44:6 and Isaiah 48:12. How can this be
since by definition of these words there can only be one first and one last?
says that Jesus made "all things",
but in Isaiah 44:24, God says
that he "by myself" made the heavens and the earth and asks the
question "Who was with me?" when the heavens and the earth were
created. How can this be since if Jesus was created by God, then he would have
been with God when everything else was created?
1:16, in talking about Jesus, says that "... All things have been
created by him and FOR HIM". If Jesus was Michael the Archangel at the
time of creation, would an angel have created all things for himself? Isaiah 43:7 says God created
"everyone ... for my OWN glory...".
The Watchtower Society teaches that the 144,000 of Revelation 7:4 is to be taken
literally. If chapter 7 of Revelation is to be taken literally, where then
does the Bible say that the 144,000 will come from? (See Revelation 7:5-8).
If the soul is the body, why does Jesus make a
distinction between the body and the soul in Matthew 10:28?
The NWT translates John 1:1 as "... and the Word was
WITH God, and the Word was a god". How can the Word (Jesus) be "a god"
if God says in Deuteronomy 32:39,
"See now that I, even I, am he, and there is NO god WITH me..."?
Jesus Christ is referred to as "Mighty God" in Isaiah 9:6 ("For
unto us a child is born, unto us a son is given... and his name
shall be called Wonderful, Counsellor, The mighty God..."). Jehovah is referred
to as "Mighty God" in Isaiah
10:20-21. How can this be if there is only one God (I
Corinthians 8:4, Isaiah 43:10, 44:6)?
If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both
hands together over his head, why does John 20:25 say "...Except
I shall see in his hands the print of the nails...", indicating that there was
more than one nail used for his hands?
Jesus uses the phrase "Verily I say to you, ..."
over 50 times in the Bible. In the NWT, the comma is placed after the word
"you" every time except in Luke
23:43, where the comma is placed after the word "today". Why is the
comma placed after "today" instead of after "you"
in this verse? If the translation of this phrase in Luke 23:43 was consistent
with the translation of this phrase in all the other verses in which it
appears, and the comma was placed after the word "you", how would
it read? (see Greek-English Interlinear)
The NWT translates the Greek word "esti" as
"is" in almost every instance in the New Testament (Matthew 26:18, 38,
Mark 14:44, Luke 22:38, etc.). Why does the NWT
translate this Greek word as "means" in Matthew 26:26-28, Mark
14:22-24, and Luke 22:19? Why the inconsistency in the translation of the word
"esti"? If the NWT was consistent and translated the Greek word "esti"
as "is" in these verses, what would these verses say? (See
20:28, Thomas refers to Jesus in Greek as "Ho kyrios moy kai ho theos
moy". This translates literally as "the Lord of me and THE God of me".
Why does Jesus, in John 20:29, affirm Thomas for having come to this
realization? If Jesus really wasn't the Lord and THE God of Thomas, why didn't
Jesus correct him for making either a false assumption or a blasphemous
If Christ will not have a visible return to earth, then
how will he be seen by "ALL the tribes of the earth" (Matthew
24:30) and by "EVERY eye" (Revelation
1:7) when he returns?
If the Holy Spirit is God's impersonal active force,
how could he:
Be referred to as "he" and "him" in John 16:7-8 and John 16:13-14
Bear witness - John 15:26
Feel hurt - Isaiah 63:10
Be blasphemed against - Mark 3:29
Say things - Ezekiel 3:24, Acts 8:29, 10:19, 11:12, 21:11, Hebrews 10:15-17, Revelation 2:7
Desire - Galatians 5:17
Be outraged - Hebrews 10:29
Search - I Corinthians 2:10
Comfort - Acts 9:31
Be loved -
Be lied to and be God - Acts 5:3-4
What is the meaning of Revelation 14:9-11, which says,
"... If anyone worships the beast ... he shall be tormented with fire
and brimstone ... And the smoke of their torment ascendeth up for ever and ever ...".
Where could "anyone" be "tormented ... for ever and ever"?
John 1:3 says in reference to Christ, "All things
were made by him; and without him was not any thing made that was made".
How could Christ have been a created being if ALL things came into existence
by him? If Jesus was a created being, then according to John 1:3, Jesus would have had
to create himself.
If the spirit of a man has no existence apart from the
body, why does Stephen just before his death in Acts 7:59, pray to Jesus to
"receive my spirit"? How could Jesus receive Stephen's spirit if a man's
spirit ceases to exist when the body dies?
If people are to have everlasting life on
paradise EARTH, why does I
Thessalonians 4:17 say, "...we which
are alive and remain shall be caught up together with them in the clouds, to
MEET THE LORD IN THE AIR:
and so shall we ever be with the Lord"?
If there are 144,000 spirit anointed people who have a
heavenly hope, and a great crowd of people who have another hope of
everlasting life on paradise earth, why does Paul say that there is only ONE
hope (Ephesians 4:4), instead of two?
If there is no conscious awareness after death, how
could the "spirits in prison" be preached to by Christ after
his death (I Peter
3:18-20) and how could the good news be "declared also to the dead"?
In Philippians 2:9, the NWT inserts the word
even though it doesn't appear in the original Greek. What is the reason for inserting this word? Is the word
"Jehovah" a name? See Exodus 6:3, Psalms 83:18, and Isaiah 42:8. How would the
verse read if the word "other" had not been inserted? What does scripture say
about adding words to the Bible? See Proverbs 30:5-6.
(see Greek-English Interlinear)
Hebrews 9:28, speaking of Christ, says
"... unto them that look for him shall he
appear the second time..." How can Christ APPEAR a second time if he will not
have a visible return to earth?
Amos 4:11 says,
"I have overthrown some of you, as God overthrew Sodom
and Gomorrah, and ye were as a firebrand plucked out of the burning: yet have
ye not returned unto me, saith the LORD." How can Jehovah speaking in this verse refer to another
person as God ("... as GOD overthrew of Sodom ...")?
In Revelation 19:1, where does it say that the
"people" will be?
If Christians are persecuted for the sake of Jehovah's
name, why did Christ tell the first Christians that they would be persecuted
for the sake of his (Jesus') name instead of Jehovah's (Matthew 24:9, Mark
13:13, Luke 21:12, 17, John 15:21, and Acts 9:16)?
In Colossians 1:15-17, the NWT inserts the word
4 times even though it is not in the original Greek. Why is the word "other" inserted? How would these verses read if
the word "other" had not been inserted? (see Greek-English
In II Peter 1:1, the NWT inserts the word
"the". Why is
it inserted? How would the verse read if the word "the" was not inserted? What
does scripture say about adding words to the Bible? (See Proverbs 30:5-6).
In the sermon on the mount, when Jesus was addressing
the "great multitude" (Luke 6:17), why did he tell them in Luke 6:22-23, "...your
reward is great in heaven ..."?
In Matthew 1:23, who is Matthew referring to here that
has been given the name which means "God With Us"?
In Revelation 14:13, how can the dead be
find "rest" if there is no conscious awareness after death?
If Jesus was executed on a torture stake, with both
hands together over his head, instead of on a cross with both hands
outstretched, why does Matthew 27:37 say that the sign
"This is Jesus the King
of the Jews" was "set up over his HEAD" instead of being posted above his
hands? How could it have been posted above his head if his arms were stretched
out over his head?
In Luke 4:12, the NWT translates
"kyrios" (Lord) as "Jehovah", which makes the verse read
"...Thou shalt not tempt the Jehovah thy God." Why is kyrios translated as
"Jehovah" in this verse? Was the devil, in Luke 4:9-11, putting Jehovah to the
test or JESUS to the test? See Greek-English Interlinear
The Bible says that ONLY God is our savior (Hosea 13:4, Isaiah 43:11, 45:21, etc.). How can it be then, that the Bible repeatedly says
that Jesus Christ is our savior (Luke 2:11, Philippians 3:20, Titus 2:13, 3:6, II Peter 1:1, 2:20, 3:18, etc.)?
Referring to Isaiah 14:9-17, if there is no conscious
awareness after death, how could Hell be "...
moved for thee to meet thee at thy coming..." (verse 9), how could the souls in
Hell "... speak and say unto thee..." (verse 10-11), how could the souls in
Hell "...see thee shall narrowly look
upon thee, and consider thee,
saying, Is this the man..." (verse 16-17), and how would you be aware
that this was happening?
Hebrews 3:1 refers to
"holy brethren, partakers of the
heavenly calling". In Mark 3:35, Jesus says,
"whosoever shall do the will of God, the same is my
brother ...". Therefore, according to the Bible, whoever does
the will of God is a brother of Jesus and a partaker of the heavenly calling.
How can this be if the Watchtower Society teaches that only 144,000 people go
Hebrews 11:16, in speaking about some of the faithful
people of the Old Testament (Abel, Noah, Abraham, etc.) says, "But now they desire a better country, that is, an heavenly..."
and, "... wherefore God is not ashamed to be called their God: for he hath prepared for
them a city." The word "city" refers to HEAVENLY Jerusalem of Hebrews 12:22 and Revelation
21:2. How can this be since according to the teachings of the Watchtower
Society, the only people who will go to heaven are the 144,000 spirit anointed
who have been chosen from people who lived after Christ died?
Revelation 20:10 says,
"And the devil that deceived them was cast
into the lake of fire and brimstone, where the beast and the false prophet are,
and shall be tormented day and night for ever and ever." Where will the devil, the beast, and the false prophet be
"tormented day and night for ever and ever"?
In Luke 24:36-39 and in John 20:26-27, Jesus showed his
disciples the wounds in his body as proof of his resurrection. If Jesus' body
had been destroyed by God after he died, how could Jesus show the disciples
his body which had the wounds in his hands, feet, and side and claim that he
is not just a spirit, "for a spirit hath not flesh and bones, as ye see me have"?
If Christ was created by God and was the wisdom of God
(Proverbs 8:1-4, 12, 22-31), then before Jesus would have been created, God
would have had to have been without wisdom. How is it possible that God could
have ever been without wisdom?
Revelation 7:11 says that
"the angels stood round about the throne" in heaven. Revelation 14:2-3 says "And
I heard a voice from heaven ...
And they sung as it were a new song before the throne ...". Revelation 7:9 says, "...
lo, a great multitude ...
stood before the throne...". Revelation 7:14-15 says, "...These
are they which came out of great tribulation ...
Therefore are they before the throne of God ...". Therefore, if
"before the throne of God" means in heaven (Revelation
7:11, 14:2-3), and the "great
multitude" is "before the throne of God" (Revelation 7:9,
7:14-15), where does that mean that the great crowd will be?
If Jesus Christ is Michael the Archangel , how can Matthew 25:31 say, "When the Son of man shall come in
his glory, and ALL the holy angels with him, ...". Since
"all the holy angels" would certainly include Michael
the Archangel , is it possible that Jesus could return with himself?
In Luke 20:37-38, how could Abraham, Isaac, and Jacob
be "of the living: for all live unto him", since they all died hundreds of years before
Jesus said this?
If the soul dies when the body dies, how could the
"souls" of Revelation 6:9-11, who were of those who had been
"slain", cry out "with a loud
voice, saying, How long, O Lord..."?
In Matthew 28:19, Jesus tells his disciples to
"teach all the nations ...baptizing them in the name of the Father, and of the Son, and of
the Holy Ghost". Why would the disciples be instructed to baptize in the name
of anybody or anything who was not God? Do Jehovah's Witnesses follow the
command of Jesus and baptize "in the name of the Father and of the Son and of
the Holy Ghost"?
If the human soul IS the person, how could the soul go
out of a person (Genesis 35:18)
or come back into a person (I Kings 17:21)?
The Watchtower Society teaches that the earth will
never be destroyed or depopulated. How can it be, then, that God says in Isaiah 51:6, "...
the earth shall wax old like a garment, and they that dwell therein shall
die in like manner ...", and that Jesus says in Matthew 24:35, "Heaven and earth
shall pass away...", and that John says in Revelation 21:1 that he saw "...
new heaven and a NEW earth: for the first heaven and the FIRST earth were
passed away; and there was no more sea."? II Peter 3:10-13
Referring to Luke 12:4-5, what would be left of a
person after they were killed that could be thrown into hell?
Who or what does the spirit of Christ (Philippians
1:19, Galatians 4:6, Romans 8:9) refer to? In Galatians 4:6, how is it
possible that the spirit of Christ could come into our hearts? How is it
possible that the spirit of CHRIST could reside in someone? If what the
Watchtower Society teaches is true, how could Paul make this statement if
Christ was a spirit person residing in heaven?
In John 8:56, Jesus says,
"Your father Abraham rejoiced to see my day: and he saw
it, and was glad". Since
Abraham died hundreds of years before Jesus said this, how could Jesus say
that Abraham "saw it and was glad", if there is no conscious awareness after
In John 6:51, Jesus says that a person must eat
this bread" in order to "live for ever", and that "the bread that I
will give IS my
flesh". In John 6:53, Jesus says
"... Except ye eat the flesh
of the Son of man, and drink his blood, ye have no life in you." In John 6:54-55,
Jesus says, "Whoso eateth my flesh, and
drinketh my blood, hath eternal life..." and
"... For my flesh is meat indeed, and my
blood is drink indeed." Do
you partake of the flesh of Christ , as Jesus commanded, in order to have life
in yourself and in order to live forever?
Every true Christian would agree that we should follow
the commands of God. In Mark 9:7,
God the Father commands us to listen to Jesus. Do you follow this command and
listen to Jesus? After all, Jesus died for your personal sins (I John 2:2, I Peter 2:24 ). Jesus tells us to go
directly to him (Matthew 11:28 -30), and the Father commanded us to listen to
Jesus. Why? Because JESUS gives us everlasting life (John 10:28 ), and so that
JESUS will enter our house and be with us and give us the right to sit on his
throne (Revelation 3:20-21). Do you pray to Jesus as Paul and the early
Christians did (I Corinthians 1:2)? Do you partake of the flesh of Christ as
Jesus commanded (John 6:51)? If not, then are you following the command of the
Father who said "Listen to him"?