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TNIV & CHRIST
Terry Watkins
www.av1611.org


. . . What shall I do then with Jesus which is called Christ?. . .
Matthew 27:22


Another deliberate and confusing mistranslation is the Greek word "Christos". The Greek word "Christos" is always translated (or actually transliterated) as "Christ". In fact, the Lord Jesus Christ is referred to as "Christ" by preachers, teachers, Christians and people worldwide more than either Lord or Jesus. People who follow the Lord Jesus Christ are call Christians. It is the "de facto" standard when referencing the Lord Jesus Christ and His followers.

 

". . . And the disciples were called Christians first in Antioch. . ." Acts 11:26

69 times the translators of the TNIV intentionally, mis-translate "christos" as "messiah".

It’s interesting that the ultra-liberal, ecumenical, Roman Catholic [which includes the Apocrypha] supported, National Council of the Churches copyrighted, feminist-approved, gender-inclusive, New Revised Standard Version (NRSV) also mis-translates "christ" as "messiah" 66 times. "Can two walk together, except they be agreed?" Amos 3:3

It shouldn’t surprise anyone that Zondervan also publishes the feminist-gender-inclusive, New Revised Standard Version (NRSV).

Why did the TNIV translators use "Messiah" rather than the obvious and accurate "Christ"?

In the Preface to the TNIV, the following reason is given:

"Two changes of special note in the TNIV New Testament are the frequent substitution of ‘Messiah’ for the more traditional ‘Christ’ . . . where the term is clearly used to designate the God-sent deliver of Jewish expectation (primarily in the Gospels and Acts), it was judged more appropriate to use ‘Messiah.’ However, where this sense seems less prominent (primarily the Epistles), the transliteration of the Greek word (Christ) has been retained."
(TNIV, Preface, p. vii)

First of all the statement, ". . . the more traditional ‘Christ’. . ." is misleading. It has nothing to do with "tradition". The simple fact is, the Greek word is Christos or Christ. Plain and simple. . .The correct translation (transliteration) is Christ.

Second, the TNIV translators "judged more appropriate to use Messiah" – despite the clear Greek text? This is "par for the course". The TNIV translators "judge" to throw out the Greek and replace it with whatever "wind is blowing" (see Ephesians 4:14).

The two terms; Christ and Messiah are both found in the New Testament. The word Messiah is found in only two places; John 1:41 and John 4:25 [this is true in the KJB, NIV, RSV, NCV, NASB, et al].

And why is Messiah found in John 1:41 and 4:25?

Simple. The Greek word is "messias". These are the only times the Greek word "messias" is in the New Testament.

A look at John 1:41 and John 4:25 is very enlightening. Remember, John 1:41 and John 4:25 are the only two verses in the New Testament that ACTUALLY contain the Greek word "messias".

John 1:41, KJB
He first findeth his own brother Simon, and saith unto him, We have found the Messias, which is, being interpreted, the Christ.

John 4:25, KJB
The woman saith unto him, I know that Messias cometh, which is called Christ: when he is come, he will tell us all things.

In BOTH cases, the Greek word "messias" [Messiah] is qualified and clarified with the Greek word "christos" [Christ]. God is clearly explaining a difference. The New Testament term is NOT Messiah – but Christ. Could the Lord have made it any plainer? Tthe simple fact is, "Christ" is 555 times in the NT in King James Bible – because the underlying Greek word is "Christos". And for nearly 400 years all the English Bibles correctly translated the word "Christ".

It has nothing to do with "tradition" – it has to do with "thus saith the Lord".

On their web page "Clarity in contemporary English", under the subtitle "Increased Understanding: Jesus and Messiah", the TNIV translators state the following reason:

"When used as the Messianic title for Jesus, especially in Matthew, John and Acts, the translators used the title of ‘Messiah.’ In other passages, where the title does not reflect a particularly Messianic overtone, translators utilized the Greek ‘Christ.’"
(TNIV: Clarity in Contemporary English, www.tniv.info/story/clarity.php)

The title "Messiah" is a Messianic Jewish term, that is recognized primarily by the Jewish people. Most people, especially today’s Bible illiterate generation, have no idea who or what "Messiah" refers to. The TNIV translators claim the TNIV mission is, " . . . to reach today’s generation with a translation of the Bible that is undeniably accurate and clearly communicates the meaning of the original Scriptures".

They do not ". . .clearly communicates the meaning of the original Scriptures". The "original scriptures CLEARLY SAYS "Christos".

The overwhelming majority of "today’s generation" have not the slightest clue who or what Messiah means. But very few, if any, do not know who is Christ.

The translators also claim, "When used [Christos] as the Messianic title for Jesus, especially in Matthew, John and Acts, the translators used the title of ‘Messiah’".

NOT SO. . .

Of the 69 times the word "Messiah", I quickly identified at least 18 places where they misapplied a Jewish Messiah with the clearly accurate Christ.

For example:

The TNIV incorrectly translates the popular Luke 2:11

"Today in the town of David a Savior has been born to you; he is the Messiah, the Lord." (Luke 2:11, TNIV)

The KJB correctly reads:

"For unto you is born this day in the city of David a Saviour, which is Christ the Lord." (Luke 2:11, KJB)

Luke 2:11, refers to the Lord Jesus Christ as the "Saviour". The "Saviour" is not a Jewish Messianic reference. Thank God – the Saviour is for all the world – not just the Jews! Nothing could possibly be clearer from the scriptures.

Notice, how the following verses vigorously present the "Saviour of the world" and "the Saviour of all men".

John 4:42, KJB:
And said unto the woman, Now we believe, not because of thy saying: for we have heard him ourselves, and know that this is indeed the Christ, the Saviour of the world. (John 4:42, KJB)

1 Timothy 4:10, KJB:
For therefore we both labour and suffer reproach, because we trust in the living God, who is the Saviour of all men, specially of those that believe. (1 Timothy 4:10, KJB)

1 John 4:14, KJB:
And we have seen and do testify that the Father sent the Son to be the Saviour of the world.

Mark 1:1 contains another misapplied "Messiah":

Mark 1:1, in the TNIV reads:

"The beginning of the good news about Jesus the Messiah," (Mark 1:1, TNIV)

The KJB, correctly reads:

Mark 1:1 The beginning of the gospel of Jesus Christ, the Son of God; (Mark 1:1, KJB)

Notice, the intent of Mark 1:1 – "the beginning of the GOSPEL. . ." The GOSPEL of Jesus Christ is NOT a "Messianic title". How far off the truth can you get? The gospel of Jesus Christ is for the whole world! Notice also, the TNIV takes a quick swipe at the deity of the Lord Jesus Christ by removing the "the Son of God".

Thank God – the TNIV is wrong – the gospel is for EVERY creature – not just the Jews.

Mark 16:15, KJB
And he said unto them, Go ye into all the world, and preach the gospel to EVERY creature. [not the Jewish, Messianic, etc.]

Ephesians 3:6, distinctively declares the "gospel of Christ" is for the Gentiles, not a Jewish Messianic application.

Ephesians 3:6, KJB
That the Gentiles should be fellowheirs, and of the same body, and partakers of his promise in Christ by the gospel:

The gospel, a Jewish Messianic Kingdom term – NEVER – God Forbid!

The gospel of Jesus Christ is for "whosoever will". John 3:16, called the gospel in a nutshell, begins with "For God so loved the WORLD, that he gave his only begotten Son, that WHOSOEVER believeth in him should not perish, but have everlasting life.

With such a blatant disregard for major Bible doctrine – I ask, have the TNIV crew ever REALLY read the Bible? And I say that not in jest. Seriously. . . Do they just sit around "twiddling and piddling over the Greek and Hebrew" and never simply pick up a King James Bible and read it?

They SERIOUSLY need to heed the words of the Lord Jesus in Matthew 24:15:

". . .whoso readeth, let him understand:"
Matthew 24:15

But perhaps Matthew 16:16 [also in Mark 8:29, Luke 9:20] contains the most haphazardly mis-translation of "Messiah":

The KJB in Matthew 16:13-18:

13 When Jesus came into the coasts of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, saying, Whom do men [notice the inclusive plural MEN – not Jews] say that I the Son of man am?
14 And they said, Some say that thou art John the Baptist: some, Elias; and others, Jeremias, or one of the prophets.
15 He saith unto them, But whom say ye that I am?
16 And Simon Peter answered and said, Thou art the Christ, the Son of the living God.
17 And Jesus answered and said unto him, Blessed art thou, Simon Barjona: for flesh and blood hath not revealed it unto thee, but my Father which is in heaven.
18 And I say also unto thee, That thou art Peter, and upon this rock I will build my church; and the gates of hell shall not prevail against it.

The TNIV Matthew 16:16 reads:

13 When Jesus came to the region of Caesarea Philippi, he asked his disciples, "Who do people say the Son of Man is?"
14 They replied, "Some say John the Baptist; others say Elijah; and still others, Jeremiah or one of the prophets."
15 "But what about you?" he asked. "Who do you say I am?"
16 Simon Peter answered, "You are the Messiah, the Son of the living God."
17 Jesus replied, "Blessed are you, Simon son of Jonah, for this was not revealed to you by flesh and blood, but by my Father in heaven.
18 And I tell you that you are Peter, and on this rock I will build my church, and the gates of death will not overcome it.

The context and content of Matthew 16:13-18 is crystal clear. Look at verse 18. The reference is NOT the Jewish Messianic Kingdom but "the church". With such gross errors, how in the world can anyone take the "sloppy, clumsy" translation work of the TNIV serious?

Notice also, the glaring mistranslation in verse 18, "the gates of hell. . ." is now the "the gates of death", matching the liberal RSV, NCV translations. The "church" is not battling [hence ‘not prevail’] the "gates of death", but the "gates of hell". Ridiculous. . .

May I remind you. . . This is the same group and the same methodology, that translated the NIV and USA-banned, NIV Inclusive version?

Direct from the TNIV web site:

"The fully independent body that translated the highly acclaimed NIV is the same eminent group that undertook the work on the TNIV. . .
The widely respected translation methodology that drove the scholarship of the NIV was maintained in the development of the TNIV. . ."
(Faithfully Produced by CBT, www.tniv.info/story/cbt.php)

And according to the TNIV translators themselvesthe TNIV is MORE ACCURATE than the NIV.

"The NIV is an extremely accurate Bible text, the best the CBT could produce as of 1984. The TNIV is an even slightly more accurate Bible text, the best the CBT could produce as of 2001."
(TNIV FAQS, www.tniv.info/QandA.php)

A FRIGHTENING CONCLUSION. . .

The false and deliberate removal of "Christ" leaves the fingerprints of the antichrist, as forewarned in 1 John 2:22:

1 John 2:22, KJB:
Who is a liar but he that denieth that Jesus is the CHRIST? He is antichrist, that denieth the Father and the Son.

How does the TNIV translators respond to this warning – simple. They change the verse!

That’s right. . .They change the verse and wipe off their fingerprints and cover up the incriminating evidence. . . I guess the antichrist is a reference to the Jewish Messianic Kingdom.

1 John 2:22, TNIV:
Who is the liar? It is whoever denies that Jesus is the Messiah. Such a person is the antichrist — denying the Father and the Son.

A FEMALE ANTICHRIST?

Notice also in 1 John 2;22, the TNIV-NIV group replace the masculine pronoun, "he" with the neuter "person" in reference to the antichrist. The Greek text is specifically and only masculine singular [outos] or "he". A female antichrist. . . Hmm. . . Now, that really ought to really make Hillary, NOW, GLAD, Barbra Streisand, Virginia Mollenkott, and the militant feminists jump for joy. . .

The TNIV replaces Christ with Messiah 69 times in the following verses:

Matthew: (16 times)
1:1, 1:16, 1:17, 2:4, 11:2, 16:16, 16:20, 22:42, 23:10, 24:5, 24:23, 24:24, 26:63, 26:68, 27:17, 27:22

Mark: (8 times)
1:1, 8:29, 9:41, 12:35, 13:21, 13:22, 14:61, 15:32

Luke (12 times)
2:11, 2:26, 3:15, 4:41, 9:20, 20:41, 22:67, 23:2, 23:35, 23:39, 24:26, 24:46

John (16 times)
1:20, 1:24, 3:28, 4:29, 7:26, 7:27, 7:31, 7:41(2), 7:42, 9:22, 10:24, 11:27, 12:34, 20:31, 21:31

Acts (12 times)
2:36, 3:18, 3:20, 5:42, 8:5, 9:22, 17:2, 17:3(2), 18:5, 18:28, 19:23

Romans (1 times)
9:5

1 John (2 times)
2:22, 5:1

Revelation (2 times)
11:15, 12:10,


Who is a liar but he
that denieth that Jesus is the CHRIST?
He is antichrist. . .
1 John 2:22


 

 


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